Solved question Paper of IPO Examination held on 29th January 2012 (Question No 1 to 150)
1. In which
case it was held by the supreme court that preamble is the
basic feature of the constitution
|
Answer : in re
Keshwananda Bharti
|
2. In which cases
it was held by the supreme court that an amendment of the
constitution under article 368 was law within the meaning of
article 13
|
Answer : in re In GolakNath
Case
|
3. The number of
articles in Indian constitution is
|
Answer : 395
|
4. The list of
states and union territories is mentioned in which schedule of the
constitution
|
Answer : First
|
5. The
establishment and constitution of supreme Court has been provided in
|
Answer
: Article 124
|
6. Which provision of
constitution says that civil and judicial authorities to
act in aid to Supreme court?
|
Answer Article 144
|
7. Which
provision of constitution says that High courts to be courts of record
|
Answer Article 215
|
8. Writ
jurisdiction of supreme court is provided on art 32 and that of high courts
art 226
|
Answer : Both are equal
|
9. Gram Sabha has
been created under which article of constitution
|
Answer : Article 243 A
|
10. Right to property
under art 300A is a
|
11. Power of parliament
to restrict trade and commerce has been described in
|
Answer Article 302
|
12. Public
service commissions for the union and states are created
|
Answer : Article 315
|
13. The rules of
dismissal and reduction of rank of civil servants emanates from
|
Answer : article 311 of
constitution
|
14. Power of
governor to grant pardon is given in
|
Answer Art 161
|
15. Preventive
detention according to Art 22 can be enforced
|
Answer :
|
16. Proclamation of
emergency is valid up to
|
Answer : It has to be
for 6 months only and it needed further a second resolution has to be passed
|
17. Protection in
respect of conviction for offences is provided under
|
Answer Article 20
|
18. In the Indian
Polity , ultimate sovereignty rests with
|
Answer : The people
|
19. The prime minister
is
|
Answer
: Head of the
government
|
20 The finance commission is
appointed by the
|
Answer : President
|
21. Which article
provides fundamental right of right to education
|
Answer : Article 21A
|
22.
In India who is the legal advisor to the state
government
|
Answer : Advocate General
|
23. If a
directive principles of State policy is infringed
|
Answer: There is no remedy by
judicial proceedings
|
24. India
Sawhney V. Union India is a case dealing with:
|
Answer: Reservation of OBCs
|
25. Article 17 of
the Constitution:
|
Answer: Abolishes
untouchability
|
26. Which part of
the Constitution reflects the mind and ideals of the framers?
|
Answers: Preamble
|
27. The power of
institution of suits and proceedings against the Central Government and State
Government is provided in which article?
|
Answers: Art. 300
|
28. The Attorney
General of India holds office during the pleasure of the:
|
Answers: President
|
29. The eight
schedule of the Constitution contains:
|
Answers: List of languages
recognized by the Constitution
|
30. National
Emergency can be declared by the President:
|
Answers: On the
recommendation of the Parliament
|
31. The
provisions of Art. 311 does not apply to
|
Answers: All of these
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32. Who
decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not?
|
Answers: Speaker of the Lok
Sabha
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33. Who is the
Ex= officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
|
Answers: The Vice-President
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34. An order of
court to produce a man before it is called:
|
Answers: Habeas Corpus
|
35. Which
article separates judiciary from executive?
|
Answers: Article 50
|
36.
All India Services has been created under which article?
|
Answers: Article 312
|
37. Which
of the following right is not provided under the Consumer Protection Act?
|
Answers: Right to punish
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38. The
pecuniary jurisdiction of Consumer State Commission is:
|
Answers: None of the above
|
39. The
limitation for filing appeal under the Consumer Protection Act is:
|
Answers: 30 days from the
order
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40. Medical
Services were brought under the Consumer Protection Act by the Supreme Court
in the famous case of:
|
Answers: Indian medical
association v V.P shata
|
41.
Consumer mentioned u/s 2 of the Act includes
|
Answers: Both of them
|
42. The
limitation for filing a Consumer Complaint is
|
Answers: Two year
|
43. The
delay in filing Consumer Complaint can be condoned under:
|
Answers: Section 24 A(2) of
the Act
|
44.
Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum to be known as:
|
Answers: District Forum
|
45. The
responsibility of the consumer under the Act includes:
|
Answers: All of the
above
|
46. Appeal
from the Orders of Consumer National Commission lies to:
|
Answers: Supreme Court
|
47. Under
which provision District Forum can impose punitive damages?
|
Answers: Section 14(d) of the
Act
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48. A
person against whom an order has been passed by the District Forum may go
into appeal to the consumer State Commission subject to his
depositing:
|
Answers: Lesser of (A)
& (B)
|
49. The
president of Consumer State Commission is appointed by the
State Government in consultation with the
|
Answers: Chief Justice of the
High Court
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50. The
pecuniary jurisdiction of Consumer National Commission is
|
Answers: Above 1 Crore
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51. The provision
of transfer of complaints from one District Forum to another within the state
vest with the State commission under
|
Answer : Section 17 A of the Act
|
52. The word
“information’ under the RTI Act includes:
|
Answer : Both of them
|
53. The RTI
Act came into effect in the year:
|
Answer : 2005
|
54.
The provision of the RTI Act giving citizen right to information is
|
Answer : Section 3
|
55. The
language of an application under RTI
|
Answer : All of the above
|
56. The
period for filing appeal under the RTI Act may be:
|
Answer : 30 days
|
57. An
application making request for information
|
Answer : Shall not be required to
give any reason for requesting the information
|
58. The
general time limit for providing information sought under RTI Act is
|
Answer : 30 days
|
59. The
type of information exempted under the RTI act are mentioned in:
|
Answer : Section 8
|
60. The
term of office for the Chief indormatio0n Commissioner and information
Commissioner is :
|
Answer : Five year and
superannuation age being 65 years, whichever is earlier
|
61. Bar of
jurisdiction of court in respect of any order made under the RTI Act is
contained in:
|
Answer : Section 23
|
62. The
umbrella organization under the RTI Act to Co- ordinate and monitor the
implementation of the provision of the Act is
|
Answer : National Advisory council*
|
63. The
object of the RTI Act is:
|
Answer : All the above
|
64. RTI Act
applies to :
|
Answer : Only A & B
|
65. The
period for filing second appeal under section 19 of the RTI act is
|
Answer : 90 days
|
66. The
limit of penalty to be imposed by the State information Commission or the
Central Information Commission under section 20 of the Act on the Principal
information Officer is rupees :
|
Answer : Min- 250/- and Max
-25000/-
|
67. Number
of chapters in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 are
|
Answer : 23
|
68. How
many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code:
|
Answer : Five
|
69. Chapter
V of Indian Penal code deals with:
|
Answer : Abetment
|
70. Abettor
is a person
|
Answer : Who instigates the
commission of offence*
|
71.
Preventing service of summons or other proceeding or preventing publication
thereof, shall be punished with:
|
Answer : Any of A and B*
|
72. Under
section 99, the right of private defence is
|
Answer :
|
73. A
public servant absconding to avoid service of summons or other
proceeding, shall be punished with:
|
Answer : Simple imprisonment for 1
month an fine Rs 500
|
74.
Obstructing public servant in discharge functions, shall be punished with:
|
Answer : Imprisonment for 3 months,
or fine of Rs 500/- or both
|
75. Number
of chapter in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
|
Answer : 11
|
76. Indian
Evidence Act 1872 does not apply on affidavits, and arbitration
|
Answer : Correct statement
|
77.
Relevancy is
|
Answer : Question of law and can be
raised at any time
|
78. RTI Act
2005 covers all the states in India except:
|
Answer : Jammu & Kashmir
|
79. Which
one of the following is not a member of committee for appointment of CIC
|
Answer : Speaker of Lok Sabha
|
80. Which
of the following is not a writ provided in the constitution of India:
|
Answer : Injunction
|
81. Code of
Civil Procedure came into force in the year
|
Answer : 1909
|
82. “
Measne Profits” under CPC means:
|
Answer : Benefits enjoyed by the
person in wrongful possession of the property
|
83. “
Foreign Judgment” under CPC means
|
Answer : The judgment of foreign
court
|
84. Decree
of a Civil Court means and includes;
|
Answer : Any
order of extension of time for filing Court Fees
|
85.
“Judgment Debtor:” means;
|
Answer : A person against
whom decree has been passed
|
86. Pleader
means:
|
Answer : Any person entitled
to appear and plead for another in Court
|
87. The
word “Judge” under CPC means
|
Answer : Presiding
Officer of a Civil Court
|
88. The
word “ Order” under section 2 of CPC means
|
Answer : Formal expression of
any decision of a Civil court
|
89. “ Share
in a corporation” shall be deemed to include
|
Answer : Bond, stock,
debenture, debenture stock
|
90.
Apart from the State of Jammu & Kashmir which is the state where on whole
of it, CPC does not apply
|
Answer : Nagaland
|
91. A
proclamation under section 82 of CrPC can be issued against a person against
whom a warrant has been issued Thus a proclamation can be issued against
|
Answer : Accused
offender*
|
92.
Attachment of the property of the person absconding
|
Answer : Can be issued
simultaneously with the publication of the proclamation of the proclamation
u/s 82 of CrPC
|
93. A
proclamation requiring a person to appear must be published giving
|
Answer : Not less than
30 day time to the person concerned
|
94. Period
of limitation for filing claims and objections to the attachment of any
property attached u/s 83 of CrPC by any person other than the proclaimed
person, as provided u/s 84 of CrPC is
|
Answer : Within six
month of attachment
|
95. Period
of limitation for filing a suit to establish the right over the property
attached by a person other than the proclaimed person, who has filed claims
and objections to the attachment, is
|
Answer : One year
from the date of disallowing the claim
|
96. If the
person proclaimed appears within the period specified in the proclamation,
the property attached:
|
Answer : Shall be
released from attachment
|
97. The
right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the
proclaimed person flows from:
|
Answer : Section
85 of Cr.PC
|
98. If the
proclaimed person does not appear within the period specified in the
proclamation, the property under attached:
|
Answer : Both A and B
|
99. A
proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or
the sale proceeds, on appearance.
|
Answer : Within
two year of attachment.
|
100. The
right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the
proclaimed person is subject to his satisfying the court that:
|
Answer : Both A and B
|
101. The
power of issuing proclamation u/s 82 CrPC
|
Answer : All the above
|
102. A
proclamation issued u/s 82 CrPC is issued
|
Answer : To secure the
attendance of the person concerned before the court
|
103.
Attachment order u/s 83 of CrPC is to be passed
|
Answer :
|
104.
Attachment u/s 83 CrPC of a land paying revenue to the state government, be
made
|
Answer : Through
the District collector within whose jurisdiction land is situated.
|
105. A fact
forming of the same transaction is relevant u/s 6 of Evidence Act:
|
Answer : Through not in
issue and may have occurred at the same time & place or at different time
& place
|
106.
Several classes of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a
particular mode are relevant
|
Answer : Under Section
6 of Evidence Act
|
107. Motive
behind an Act is relevant
|
Answer : Under Section
8 of Evidence Act
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108.
Preparation for an Act is relevant:
|
Answer : Under Section
8 of Evidence Act
|
109 Under
section 8 of Evidence Act conduct is relevant:
|
Answer : Both A&B
|
110. Under
section 8 of Evidence Act:
|
Answer : All the above are
relevant
|
111. When
the conduct of any person is relevant, any statement made to him or in his
presence and hearing, which affects such conduct is relevant:
|
Answer : Under Section
8 of Evidence Act
|
112. Facts
which are cause of facts in issue are relevant
|
Answer : Under Section
7 of Evidence Act
|
113. A
person is not entitled to give evidence of fact which he is disentitled to
prove by any provision of law
|
Answer : Under Section
5 of Evidence Act
|
114. The
question is, whether certain goods ordered from B were delivered to A, The
goods were delivered to several intermediate persons successively. Each
delivery is a relevant fact:
|
Answer : Under Section
7 of Evidence Act
|
115. The
question is, whether A murdered B Marks on the ground, produced by a
struggle at or near the place where the murder was committed are relevant
Facts:
|
Answer : Under Section
7 of Evidence Act
|
116. A is
accused of murder of B by beating him. Whatever was said or done by A
or B or the by-standers at the beating, is a relevant fact:
|
Answer : Under Section
6 of Evidence Act
|
117. A is
tired for murder of B by poison. The fact that before the death of
B, A procured poison similar to that which was administered to B, is a
relevant fact:
|
Answer : Under Section
8 of Evidence Act
|
118. The
question is is whether A committed a crime. The fact that A absconded
after receiving a letter warning that enquiry was being made for the criminal
and contents of the letter, are relevant:
|
Answer : Under Section
8 of Evidence Act
|
119. The
question is, whether A was robbed. The fact that soon after the alleged
robbery, he made a complaint relating to the offence detailing the
circumstances, are relevant:
|
Answer : Under Section
8 of Evidence Act
|
120. A sues
B upon a bond for the payment of money. B denies the making of
bond. The fact that at the time when the bond was alleged to be
made, B required money for particular purpose, is relevant.
|
Answer : Under Section
8 of Evidence Act
|
121. Wrongful
gain means
|
Answer :
Gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled
|
122.
Wrongful loss means
|
Answer : Loss b
unlawful means of property which he person losing it, is legally entitled
|
123. Dishonestly
has been defined as doing anything with intention to cause wrongful gain to
one person and wrongful loss to another:
|
Answer : Under
section 24 IPC
|
124.
Fraudulently has been defined as doing anything with intent to defraud:
|
Answer : Under
section 25 of IPC
|
125.
Section 34 of IPC
|
Answer :
|
126. Under
section 46 of IPC, death denotes:
|
Answer : Death of a
human being
|
127.
Illegal signifies
|
Answer : All the
above
|
128. Nothing
is said to be done or believed t be done in good faith which is done or
believed without due care & intention- as defined:
|
Answer :
Under section 52 IPC
|
129.
Personating a public servant is an offence
|
Answer :
Under Section 170 IPC
|
130. The
term injury as defined in Section 44 of IPC, means
|
Answer : Any harm
illegally to a person in body, mind, property and reputation
|
131. The
word voluntarily has been defined
|
Answer : In
section 39 of IPC
|
132. For
the application of section 34 IPC there must be at least
|
Answer : Two
persons
|
133. Non
attendance in obedience to an order from public servant is punishable:
|
Answer : Under
section 174 of IPC
|
134. Furnishing
false information to a public servant being legally bound is publishable
|
Answer : Under section
177 of IPC
|
135.
Obstructing public servant in discharge of public functions is punishable
|
Answer : Under section
186 of IPC
|
136.
Disobedience to order duly promulgated by public servant is punishable:
|
Answer : Under
section 188 of IPC
|
137. Threat
of injury to public servant is punishable
|
Answer : Under section
189 of IPC
|
138. Breach
of contract to attend helpless person is punishable
|
Answer : Under section
491 of IPC
|
139.
Commutation of sentence for imprisonment of life is provided:
|
Answer : In
section 55 of IPC
|
140. Under
section 73 IPC a convict can be put to solitary confinement but the total
period of the same can not exceed
|
Answer : Three months.
|
141. In
case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non payment of
fine
|
Answer : Has to be
simple
|
142. In IPC
the pronoun he and its derivative are used to denote.
|
Answer : Either
|
143 In IPC
the word India means
the territory of India excluding
|
Answer : State
of Jammu and Kashmir
|
144. The
word public servant has been defined in IPC
|
Answer : In section 21
|
145. The
word special law has been defined in section 41 of IPC to mean
|
Answer : A law
applicable to a particular subject
|
146. The
unlawful engagement of public servant in trade is prohibited
|
Answer : In
section 168 of IPC
|
147. The unlawful buying or
bidding in property by public servants is prohibited:
|
Answer : In section 169
of IPC
|
148. Under
section 53 of IPC, offenders are liable to following types of punishments:
|
Answer : Five
|
149. A
writes his name on the back of a bill of exchange. As the effect of
this endorsement is transfer the right to the bill to any person, who may
become lawful holder of it:
|
Answer : The
endorsement is a valuable security
|
150. The concept
of common intention to fasten criminal liability has been provided.
|
Answer : In
section 34 of IPC
|
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